Does French law take precedence over British law?

My sister has gone through a divorce in the UK. The judge awarded their house in France to him. I read a post which said that French law takes precedence over English law in France and the judge cannot force her to sell. My sister’s ex-husband says that the house is now his and he can do what he wants with it – but would he still need my sister’s permission to sell? He is in the process of selling. P.H.

I cannot comment on the specific UK court order which you say awarded ownership of the French house to your sister’s ex-husband.

What I can say is that we often deal with transfers of ownership following a divorce where either the UK court orders the transfer of ownership ...

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