Does French law take precedence over British law?

My sister has gone through a divorce in the UK. The judge awarded their house in France to him. I read a post which said that French law takes precedence over English law in France and the judge cannot force her to sell. My sister’s ex-husband says that the house is now his and he can do what he wants with it – but would he still need my sister’s permission to sell? He is in the process of selling. P.H.

I cannot comment on the specific UK court order which you say awarded ownership of the French house to your sister’s ex-husband.

What I can say is that we often deal with transfers of ownership following a divorce where either the UK court orders the transfer of ownership ...

To read the remaining 85% of this article, you need to either

Subscribe now to The Connexion and benefit from access to our archived articles since 2006

Freedom Subscription

Pay every three months. Our most flexible subscription.

Subscription automatically renews so you don't miss an edition (you can switch this off at any time)

1 Year Subscription (12 editions) (Our best value offer)

1 year of great reading in print and online

Subscription automatically renews so you don't miss an edition (you can switch this off at any time).

More articles from Property
More articles from Connexion France
Other articles that may interest you

Loading some business profiles...

Loading some classifieds...